Earth Science January 2014 Questions Answers Keys.
The University of the State of New York
Regents high school examination
Wednesday, January 29, 2014 — 1:15 to 4:15 p.m., only
Directions : For each statement or question, choose the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the 2011 Edition Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Earth Science. Record your answers on your separate answer sheet.
1. At a location in the Northern Hemisphere, a camera was placed outside at night with the lens pointing straight up. The shutter was left open for four hours, resulting in the star trails shown below.
At which latitude were these star trails observed?
- (1) 1° N
- (2) 30° N
- (3) 60° N
- (4) 90° N
2. Why are some constellations visible to New York State observers at midnight during April, but not visible at midnight during October?
- (1) Constellations move within our galaxy.
- (2) Constellations have elliptical orbits.
- (3) Earth revolves around the Sun.
- (4) Earth rotates on its axis.
3. A red shift in the light from very distant galaxies suggests that the universe is
- (1) fixed and stationary
- (2) moving randomly
- (3) contracting
- (4) expanding
4. Which motion causes the Coriolis effect on Earth?
- (1) revolution of Earth around the Sun
- (2) revolution of the Moon around Earth
- (3) rotation of Earth on its axis
- (4) rotation of the Moon on its axis
5. When water vapor condenses, how much heat energy will be released into the atmosphere?
- (1) 2260 joules/gram
- (2) 334 joules/gram
- (3) 4.18 joules/gram
- (4) 2.11 joules/gram
6. Liquid water sometimes turns into ice when it comes in contact with Earth’s surface. Which present weather symbol on a station model represents this type of precipitation?]
7. A weather station model is shown below.
Which information shown on the station model is most closely associated with measurements from an anemometer?
8. A dry-bulb temperature of 30°C and a wet-bulb temperature of 29°C were recorded at a weather station. What are the relative humidity and the most likely weather conditions?
- (1) Relative humidity is 29% with clear skies.
- (2) Relative humidity is 29% with a good chance of snow.
- (3) Relative humidity is 93% with clear skies.
- (4) Relative humidity is 93% with a good chance of rain.
9. The arrows on the map below show the prevailing winds at a midlatitude coastal city.
This city most likely has a climate that is
- (1) arid, with a small difference between the highest and lowest yearly temperatures
- (2) arid, with a large difference between the highest and lowest yearly temperatures
- (3) humid, with a small difference between the highest and lowest yearly temperatures
- (4) humid, with a large difference between the highest and lowest yearly temperatures
10. During an El Niño event, the South Equatorial Current reverses direction and flows over the top of northern portions of the Peru Current, causing
- (1) warmer surface ocean waters along the northeast coast of South America
- (2) warmer surface ocean waters along the northwest coast of South America
- (3) cooler surface ocean waters along the northeast coast of South America
- (4) cooler surface ocean waters along the northwest coast of South America
11. An air mass entering Alaska from the northern Pacific Ocean would most likely be labeled on a weather map as
- (1) cP
- (2) cT
- (3) mP
- (4) mT
12. Most tornadoes in the Northern Hemisphere are best described as violently rotating columns of air surrounded by
- (1) clockwise surface winds moving toward the columns
- (2) clockwise surface winds moving away from the columns
- (3) counterclockwise surface winds moving toward the columns
- (4) counterclockwise surface winds moving away from the columns
13. The major source of oxygen in Earth’s Early Proterozoic atmosphere is inferred to have been produced by
- (1) oceanic cyanobacteria
- (2) outgassing from volcanic eruptions
- (3) radioactive decay in Earth’s inner core
- (4) evaporation of ocean water
14. Earth has sedimentary bedrock of marine origin that is four billion years old. Which inference can be made from this information?
- (1) Earth had oceans four billion years ago.
- (2) Sedimentary rocks formed from magma when Earth cooled four billion years ago.
- (3) Most sedimentary rocks are at least four billion years old.
- (4) Life existed on Earth four billion years ago.
15. Valcouroceras is a New York State index fossil. Which mountain-building event occurred in New York State during the time when Valcouroceras was living in oceans covering parts of New York State?
- (1) Alleghenian orogeny
- (2) Acadian orogeny
- (3) Taconian orogeny
- (4) Grenville orogeny
16. The diagram below represents some fauna (animals) found fossilized in Canada’s Burgess shale.
During which geologic epoch did these animals live?
- (1) Middle Cambria
- (2) Early Pennsylvanian
- (3) Late Triassic
- (4) Paleocene
17. A group hiking in the Catskill region of New York State finds several large boulders composed of metamorphic rock. These boulders most likely resulted from the weathering of bedrock formed in the
- (1) Catskills, and were transported to their present location by mass movement
- (2) Catskills, and were transported to their present location by glaciers
- (3) Adirondack Mountains, and were transported to their present location by mass movement
- (4) Adirondack Mountains, and were transported to their present location by glaciers
18. The formation of the Canary Islands was primarily caused by their location near a
- (1) subduction zone
- (2) mantle hot spot
- (3) divergent boundary
- (4) transform fault
19. A P-wave takes 5 minutes to travel from the epicenter of an earthquake to a seismic station. Approximately how many minutes will it take an S-wave to travel that same distance?
- (1) 15 min
- (2) 12 min
- (3) 9 min
- (4) 4 min
20. Which two Earth layers are separated by the Moho boundary?
- (1) rigid mantle and plastic mantle
- (2) outer core and stiffer mantle
- (3) stiffer mantle and asthenosphere
- (4) crust and rigid mantle
21. During a rainstorm, when soil becomes saturated, the amount of infiltration
- (1) decreases and runoff decreases
- (2) decreases and runoff increases
- (3) increases and runoff decreases
- (4) increases and runoff increases
22. Sediment is deposited as a river enters a lake because the
- (1) velocity of the river decreases
- (2) force of gravity decreases
- (3) volume of water increases
- (4) slope of the river increases
23. Stream drainage patterns that develop in a landscape region are controlled mostly by
- (1) bedrock structure
- (2) precipitation amounts
- (3) nearness to a large body of water
- (4) air temperature variations
24. The most abundant metallic element by mass in Earth’s crust makes up 8.23% of the crust. Which group of minerals all normally contain this metallic element in their compositions?
- (1) garnet, calcite, pyrite, and galena
- (2) biotite mica, muscovite mica, fluorite, and halite
- (3) talc, quartz, graphite, and olivine
- (4) plagioclase feldspar, amphibole, pyroxene, and potassium feldspar
25. Which sequence of events affecting moist air within Earth’s atmosphere causes cloud formation?
- (1) rising expanding cooling condensation
- (2) rising contracting warming evaporation
- (3) sinking expanding warming condensation
- (4) sinking contracting cooling evaporation
26. In which environment is the amount of transpiration usually the greatest?
27. Which graph best shows the general relationship between a planet’s distance from the Sun and the Sun’s gravitational attraction to the planet?
28. Which diagram best represents the tilt of Earth’s axis that causes the Northern Hemisphere seasons shown? (Diagrams are not drawn to scale.)
29. The map below shows a portion of Earth’s system of latitude and longitude and five surface locations labeled A, B, C, D, and X.
It is solar noon at location X. At which location will solar noon next occur?
- (1) A
- (2) B
- (3) C
- (4) D
30. The diagram below represents the mass and volume of a mineral sample being measured. These measurements were used to determine the density of the mineral sample.
What is the density of this mineral sample?
- (1) 6 g/mL
- (2) 24 g/mL
- (3) 34 g/mL
- (2) 24 g/mL (4) 60 g/mL
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